Poll- should law abiding citizens be allowed to own NFA weapons,a.p. ammo etc?

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You interpret my post to immediately think I meant "government" when I clearly didn't use the word.
Then who/what were you referring to?

You were rhetorically asking if citizens should be "allowed" to own certain kinds of weapons. The problem with your statement is it implies someone (or something) decides this.

I was trying to make the point that no one has the authority to decide what types of weapons I'm "allowed" to own.
 
As I pointed out, our representative government clearly has the authority to determine who is allowed to own what items and what other items are illegal to posess, whether they are weapons or not. The authority is there, whether you believe in it or not. Refusal to obey the authority will get you thrown in jail. It's the way governments work, because by definition, every government is tyrannical. The only truly free men are those who have no governing authority (i.e., a true anarchist society).

We, the people, give this government the power to do this. Maybe not you specifically said "I don't want anyone to have full-automatic rifles," but there are other people in this society that did say that, and that want their say in the way the government works in other aspects, too. Is this a bad thing? Depends. The world would be pretty boring without the Left v. Right thrust in constant bipartisan debate.

If we were allowed to own full-automatic weapons, would everyone be happy with that decision? Absolutely not. This is where we come to a little thing called, "a compromise." The representatives from the people compromised and decided that some weapons would be banned, but that it wouldn't be fair to take away all weapons. So now we're in this are we the Pro-gun people are happy we still have guns, but sad because we don't have all the guns. The Anti-gun people are happy some of the guns are gone, but sad because they didn't get rid of all the guns.

So you ask who has the authority to determine who gets what and why? Me and the rest of the 295,734,134 people who live in the United Sates, through representative government. You're part of that. Want to be heard above the rest? Then do something. Posting on a forum and arguing with me about whether government authority is real or not doesn't count as "getting the word out."

I was trying to make the point that no one has the authority to decide what types of weapons I'm "allowed" to own.

No one has the authority. The authority comes from "We". Now I know there are some people out there thinking, "If the government doesn't have authority to take my home-modified unregistered silenced full-automatic 10 inch barrel AK-47, then they don't have the authority to throw me in jail." This has been tried before. You see, we had this little thing called the "Eighteenth Amendment" which banned the sale of alcohol. Some people didn't like this, it was "unconstitutional." So what did they do? They made their own alcohol anyway. When they were discovered, they were thrown in jail. It doesn't matter that the "Twenty-first Amendment" made alcohol legal again. Those people who defied the law were still criminals, some of them were still in jail, and the past had already done it's damage. The law is the law, whether it's right or not, whether you believe in it or not.
 
Vex, you are confusing two very different ideas, 1) power, and 2) authority. Authority derives from just laws, while power derives from the muzzle end of a gun. The government has power to enforce its authority, and it has power to enforce its unauthorized and lawless will. The Federal Government derives all of its authority from the US Constitution. If a power is not authorized by that document, its exercise is an act of lawlessness, i.e., it is an act of despotism, not of authority. See the difference?
 
Amendment 10, right?

I understand what you're saying about the difference between power and authority. I'll go one step further and state that you can't have authority without power. What Molon Labe asked me is:

I was trying to make the point that no one has the authority to decide what types of weapons I'm "allowed" to own.

As of today, the government has the authority to take away certain weapons. Is this an unconstitutional violation of the Second Amendment? Well, this hasn't been decided yet. And until it is decided, the governments power to enact it's authority is cleary present and often used.

If we break laws because we don't believe in them, we're still criminals, and it's alot harder to get laws changed from jail.

Before Ohio had shall-issue CHL, people still "broke the law" and carried concealed weapons. The reason for why they carried doesn't matter, because those people are now felons. During proponent hearings on the initial CHL law, do you think having these "felons" testify for the CHL law would have been a wise idea? Absolutely not. So what good does it do to break a law because you don't "believe" in it? Absolutely none. You could go to jail, lose your job, lose your house, lose your family, and be labeled a felon for the rest of your life. Is it worth it?
 
As of today, the government has the authority to take away certain weapons. Is this an unconstitutional violation of the Second Amendment? Well, this hasn't been decided yet. And until it is decided, the governments power to enact it's authority is cleary present and often used.
That begs the question; Is this an enactment of authority or an exercise in despotism? They are two quite different things.
If we break laws because we don't believe in them, we're still criminals, and it's alot harder to get laws changed from jail.
Yes, if we break duly enacted laws, we are criminals, however, if we break laws which were made despotically, i.e., laws passed without authority, we are merely resisters of despotism, not criminals. Often, resisters of despotism even get shot or put in jail by the despots they are resisting. That, however, does not make one a criminal. One is only a criminal when one breaks laws duly enacted, and this is precisely the question we are dealing with here. Are these laws duly enacted, or are they acts of despotism? If the authority to pass said laws was not delegated via the US Constitution, then they are acts of despotism by definition.
 
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What happens if a white supremacist group decides to buy tanks, artillery, and planes and station them in northern Virginia?

The same thing that would happen if our government adopted a white supremacist agenda. They would be outnumbered and outgunned by a populace largely unsympathetic to their goals.

Anyone who has ever played BF2 and tried to drive a tank through karkand without infantry support knows that a tank alone is no guarantee of superiority if your adversaries have antitank weaponry and outnumber you.

I am personally more worried about our ever more intrusive government than I am about a bunch of hypothetical white supremacists in a far away state.
 
So true beerslurpy. On the servers I play on most I am known as the "RPG sniper". They HATE it when I run out of stingers and shoot down a helo with an RPG.:cool:

/Plays BF1942 Desert Combat Mod.
 
Sorry, Art, you're right... back on topic.

The Real Hawkeye said:
That begs the question; Is this an enactment of authority or an exercise in despotism? They are two quite different things.

I have some required reading for you that will clear up all this authority confusion....

"Article I, Section 8, Clause 3 of the United States Constitution (a.k.a. The Commerce Clause): To regulate commerce with foreign nations, and among the several states, and with the Indian tribes;"

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Article_One_of_the_United_States_Constitution#Commerce_Clause

Go read it, think about this debate for a day or two. I have a good feeling you'll realize that things like the Violent Crime Control and Law Enforcement Act of 1994 (specifically the Federal Assault Weapons Ban provision) and Firearm Owners Protection Act are all constitutional and covered under the Commerce Clause.

As far as the original question as posed by the topic starter: You can own these weapons, as long as it's pre-ban and you pay the $200 tax stamp.
 
Quote:

"(Military aircraft or artillery is a no also). Unless they start issuing those to individual foot-soilders, or are deployed as a SAW, i do not see it as being protected under the 2nd amendment."

I know I guy who was a pilot, rolling in it pretty good, and imported himself a Russian MiG-17F. The guns still worked - Just no ammo.

Personally, I figure that nothing should be outright banned but perhaps access should be restricted. Same sort of thing as hunting, driving, and concealed carry.

It's easy to say that the people have the right to arm themselves. I agree with that. But it's also equally (if not more) important that other people have the right not to be shot, blown up, fragged, or incinerated by the arms of other (presumably less than responsible people). Should you be able to get it? Hell yes. But you should have to at least do some rudimentary paperwork to ensure that you're not going to endanger anyone else with it without good reason (self defense).

This process should be cheap or free, fast, and accessible. None of this NFA nonsense, for sure.
 
I have some required reading for you that will clear up all this authority confusion....

"Article I, Section 8, Clause 3 of the United States Constitution (a.k.a. The Commerce Clause): To regulate commerce with foreign nations, and among the several states, and with the Indian tribes;"

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Article...ommerce_Clause
The commerce clause authorizes Federal regulation of commerce between the States. What does that have to do with what kinds of guns you, a non-interstate trader, own or can buy? Additionally, authority to regulate commerce is not authority to regulate the items which can be in commerce. To regulate is not to ban or prohibit. Regulate means to make regular, i.e., establish regular rules of conduct, and for resolving and avoiding conflict and confusion. There is no authority given over what things can be in commerce, but only to make commerce regular by establishing rules for the commerce itself. If you are arguing that the commerce clause gives the Federal Government the ability to stifle commerce in certain items, you will have to show me the language to that effect. If you cannot, it does not exist.
Go read it, think about this debate for a day or two. I have a good feeling you'll realize that things like the Violent Crime Control and Law Enforcement Act of 1994 (specifically the Federal Assault Weapons Ban provision) and Firearm Owners Protection Act are all constitutional and covered under the Commerce Clause.

As far as the original question as posed by the topic starter: You can own these weapons, as long as it's pre-ban and you pay the $200 tax stamp.
You are mistaken. If I cannot legally purchase a newly manufactured weapon, then I am being prohibited from doing so, and you bear the burden of showing me from where in the Constitution the authority to do this derives.
 
The commerce clause authorizes Federal regulation of commerce between the States. What does that have to do with what kinds of guns you, a non-interstate trader, own or can buy? Additionally, authority to regulate commerce is not authority to regulate the items which can be in commerce. To regulate is not to ban or prohibit. Regulate means to make regular, i.e., establish regular rules of conduct, and for resolving and avoiding conflict and confusion. There is no authority given over what things can be in commerce, but only to make commerce regular by establishing rules for the commerce itself. If you are arguing that the commerce clause gives the Federal Government the ability to stifle commerce in certain items, you will have to show me the language to that effect. If you cannot, it does not exist.

Here's a start Hawkeye..

Wickard v. Filburn
US v. Stewart
Raich v. Gonzales
US v. Lopez

(Keep in mind following Raich, Stewart was remanded back to the 9th for reconsideation in light of Raich.
 
huh?

What nondiscriminatory way would could we use to prevent the nation of Islam from building itself a relatively powerful private army?

why can't the nation of islam have it's own millitia?
(I am willing to bet they do.)

we should have lots of millitia groups in this country.

during the American Revolution cannons and warships were privately owned and loaned to the millitia and given back after we won!

wasn't it Thomas Jefferson who said "Americans have the right to every terrible weapon of war"
 
The white supremacist group can put their aircraft, artillery, and such wherever they want. So can Nation of Islam. After they decide to get froggy with such, I'd be willing to bet that the rest of the groups with some toys would decide to either divest themselves of such temptations or go back to the drawing board as to plans.


To quote Clint,"Dying ain't much of a living, boy."

Research militias in this country. Militias were historically associated with civil authority. Private armed groups under private authority have been unlawful for centuries in this country. The militias had much autonomy. They largely selected their own sergeants and officers. However, the civil authority was what called them to service and appointed the officer who would be their commanding officer. Also, examine who the militias elected as officers and then compare the officers with the corresponding civil authority. You will find that there was much confluence between the members of the civil government and the officers of the militias,i.e, officers also held positions in the civil government or were connected with officials of the civil government by social and kinship ties.

Cannon were owned by some individuals who lent them to the militias at need. The warships were not owned by individual citizens during times of peace. Letters of marque and reprisal were issued by the government. Merchant ships were converted to naval use by individuals or groups who received the letters. In some few cases, true warships were built by holders of the letters, financed by individuals or groups. It could be quite profitable, as any prize ships seized from the enemy-including private merchant vessels and their cargoes-could be sold legally. But no private citizens, except a few pirates, owned warships in time of peace. You couldn't legally make a profit with them and their upkeep just sitting in a slip was quite expensive.
 
Here's a start Hawkeye..

Wickard v. Filburn
US v. Stewart
Raich v. Gonzales
US v. Lopez
I guess I should have said that a little differently. This is how I should have said it: If you are arguing that the commerce clause gives the Federal Government the ability to stifle commerce in certain items, you will have to show me the language IN THE CONSTITUTION to that effect. If you cannot, it does not exist.

Your task is simple. The Constitution is a rather short document. Simply cut and paste the language from the Constitution into a post answering my question. No need for hyperlinks to Supreme Court cases. My rule is that if the Founders would not have found the power in the Constitution, it is more than likely not there, regardless of the tortured logic of Supreme Court justices.
 
Art. III, section 2:

"Section 2. The judicial power shall extend to all cases, in law and equity, arising under this Constitution, the laws of the United States, and treaties made, or which shall be made, under their authority..."

The Constitution also sets out the process by which laws are made. I can cut & paste that too, or you can just read Art. I for yourself. When the Constitutionality of those laws, duly passed by the legislature, is called into question you have a case 'arising under the Constitution' as per Art. III, section 2, to which the judicial power may extend. The cases I provided are examples of how the judiciary has interpreted the commerce clause and questions pertaining to legislative authority exercised pursuant to the commerce clause.

Obviously, you don't like how the commerce clause has been interpreted by the SCOTUS so far and you interpret its meaning differently. I can agree with you 100% on that. However, our interpretation of the commerce clause isn't really relevant. Can you show me where in the Constitution the founding fathers named you or me as the final arbiter of questions arising from the Constitution?

I'm sure there's plenty of people who would interpret the commerce clause and other parts of the Constitution to mean something much different than either you or I would. The Constitution, however, doesn't empower every citizen to interpret and follow the Constitution (and thus the laws passed by congress) the way they personally want to interpret and obey it. IOW, while I agree with it, who said your view of the commerce clause was the correct one? Would you want someone like Sara Brady to interpret the 2nd Amendment? How about the sex offender on parole; does he get to interpret the 1st Amendment to his liking... which may include protections for child pornography? There's about 260,000,000 people in the US - if everyone gets to interpret the constitution and the laws the way they each want, we might as well not have a constitution. But thats why the founding fathers created the judiciary - as a means to decide such constitutional questions definitively for all.

Or do we just ignore the parts of the Constitution we don't like?
 
Art. III, section 2:

"Section 2. The judicial power shall extend to all cases, in law and equity, arising under this Constitution, the laws of the United States, and treaties made, or which shall be made, under their authority..."
And you interpret this to mean that judges may legislate from the bench? This is not a license for judges to expand their own, the Congress's or the president's powers extraconstitutionally.
The Constitution also sets out the process by which laws are made. I can cut & paste that too, or you can just read Art. I for yourself. When the Constitutionality of those laws, duly passed by the legislature, is called into question you have a case 'arising under the Constitution' as per Art. III, section 2, to which the judicial power may extend. The cases I provided are examples of how the judiciary has interpreted the commerce clause and questions pertaining to legislative authority exercised pursuant to the commerce clause.
Yes, I remember those cases well from law school. I remember my amazement at the disingenuousness with which the Supreme Court manufactured Federal powers where non existed.
I can agree with you 100% on that. However, our interpretation of the commerce clause isn't really relevant. Can you show me where in the Constitution the founding fathers named you or me as the final arbiter of questions arising from the Constitution?
"Should an unwarrantable measure of the Federal Government be unpopular in particular States, which would seldom fail to be the case, or even a warrantable measure be so, which may sometimes be the case, the means of opposition to it are powerful and at hand... But ambitious encroachments of the Federal Government, on the authority of the State governments, would not excite the opposition of a single State or of a few States only. They would be signals of general alarm. Every Government would espouse the common cause. A correspondence would be opened. Plans of resistance would be concerted. One spirit would animate and conduct the whole. The same combination in short would result from an apprehension of the federal, as was produced by the dread of a foreign yoke; and unless the projected innovations should be voluntarily renounced, the same appeal to a trial of force would be made in the one case, as was made in the other... The advantage of being armed, which the Americans possess over the people of almost every other nation, the existence of subordinate governments, to which the people are attached and by which the militia officers are appointed, forms a barrier against the enterprises of ambition, more insurmountable than any which a simple government of any form can admit of. Notwithstanding the military establishments in the several kingdoms of Europe, which are carried as far as the public resources will bear, the governments are afraid to trust the people with arms. And it is not certain that with this aid alone, they would not be able to shake off their yokes. But were the people to possess the additional advantages of local governments chosen by themselves, who could collect the national will, and direct the national force; and of officers appointed out of the militia, by these governments and attached both to them and to the militia, it may be affirmed with the greatest assurance, that the throne of every tyranny in Europe would be speedily overturned, in spite of the legions which surround it. Let us not insult the free and gallant citizens of America with the suspicion, that they would be less able to defend the rights of which they would be in actual possession, than the debased subjects of arbitrary power would be able to rescue theirs from the hands of their oppressors. Let us rather no longer insult them with the supposition, that they can ever reduce themselves to the necessity of making the experiment, by a blind and tame submission to the long train of insidious measures, which must precede and produce it." - Alexander Hamilton
I'm sure there's plenty of people who would interpret the commerce clause and other parts of the Constitution to mean something much different than either you or I would. The Constitution, however, doesn't empower every citizen to interpret and follow the Constitution (and thus the laws passed by congress) the way they personally want to interpret and obey it. IOW, while I agree with it, who said your view of the commerce clause was the correct one? Would you want someone like Sara Brady to interpret the 2nd Amendment? How about the sex offender on parole; does he get to interpret the 1st Amendment to his liking... which may include protections for child pornography? There's about 260,000,000 people in the US - if everyone gets to interpret the constitution and the laws the way they each want, we might as well not have a constitution. But thats why the founding fathers created the judiciary - as a means to decide such constitutional questions definitively for all.
The Constitution's meaning is clear in the vast majority of its content. It only became unclear to those who began to see it as a set of limits on an otherwise unlimited Federal Government, rather than what it is, i.e., a set of delegated powers, to be narrowly defined in accord with the Tenth Amendment to said document. A long train of treasonous acts on the part of the Supreme Court does not justify the usurpations of the last century.
 
Hawkeye,

There is no place in the constitution that specifically states that marijuana is illegal under federal law, right? But it does state that congress can not pass a bill into law unless it's allowed by the constitution, right (Amendment 10)? So how is making/selling marijuana illegal also constitutional? Article I, Section 8. The Commerce Clause, and a Supreme Court case called "Gonzales v. Raich" (formerly "Ashcroft v. Raich).

Link: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gonzales_v._Raich

Same with machine guns, etc. Here is an explanation of the machine gun ban:

A last-minute provision that was added to the act prevents the ATF from accepting the federal tax mandated by the National Firearms Act for the civilian registration of a fully-automatic firearm, automatic sear, drop-in sear, or similar device which provides fully automatic fire, the date of manufacture for which was after May 19, 1986. This effectively banned their manufacture except for law enforcement, military, or export, which require different registration forms. However, fully automatic firearms and sears manufactured and registered with ATF prior to May 19, 1986, can still be transferred to private citizens after payment of the $200 transfer tax.


The Commerce Clause has more power than you would ever think. It is the root of alot of the government's authority. Just takes a little imagination. How great is that?

And we owe it all to Chief Justice John Marshall (September 24, 1755 – July 6, 1835), who clarified the Commerce Clause in 1824....

Marshall suggested that "commerce" included navigation of goods, and that it "must have been contemplated" by the Framers. Marshall added that Congress's power over commerce "is complete in itself, may be exercised to its utmost extent, and acknowledges no limitations, other than are prescribed in the Constitution."

Link: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gibbons_v._Ogden

"The mind can scarcely conceive a system for regulating commerce between nations which shall exclude all laws concerning navigation." The ruling determined that "a Congressional power to regulate navigation is as expressly granted as if that term had been added to the word 'commerce'.

If, as has always been understood, the sovereignty of Congress, though limited to specified objects, is plenary as to those objects, the power over commerce with foreign nations and among the several states is vested in Congress as absolutely as it would be in a single government, having in its constitution the same restrictions on the exercise of the power as are found in the Constitution of the United States.

:D
 
So far as "what happens if X group gets Y weapons!" goes, I more fear what happens if a neo-nazi/terrorist/animal liberation group got a tank as things are now!

The law is supposed to stop a madman from buying or building a tank in his backyard and going on a rampage... But the funny thing about madmen is they dont listen to laws.

So if some group of rather unpleasant folks would manage to smuggle, steal or build armor, they would have the advantage from the time they start shooting until the time we can get a military force in to do something about them.
That could be hours of free roaming chaos.

I'd dare ask how many of us could, within the hour, put our hands on a weapon capable of stopping so much as an up-armored truck?

Answer seems to be "Not many":
 

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Hawkeye,

There is no place in the constitution that specifically states that marijuana is illegal under federal law, right? But it does state that congress can not pass a bill into law unless it's allowed by the constitution, right (Amendment 10)? So how is making/selling marijuana illegal also constitutional? Article I, Section 8. The Commerce Clause, and a Supreme Court case called "Gonzales v. Raich" (formerly "Ashcroft v. Raich).
The arguments used in those cases are mere contrivances designed to permit the Federal Government to do what it wishes, under the apparent color of law, despite not having been actually delegated the authority to do them. The proof of this is that Prohibition required an amendment to the Constitution specifically delegating to the Federal Government authority to regulate alcohol. No such amendment was sought, however, for the war on some drugs. The Supreme Court simply decided that the Constitution had become a "living document," able to morph at will so as to grant new powers to the Federal Government as the times required. This is an obviously disingenuous stance. I am surprised that you fell for it.
The Commerce Clause has more power than you would ever think. It is the root of alot of the government's authority. Just takes a little imagination. How great is that?
Ok, now I am beginning to question the sincerity of your pretended stance.
 
And you interpret this to mean that judges may legislate from the bench? This is not a license for judges to expand their own, the Congress's or the president's powers extraconstitutionally.

Ah yes, the old canard of 'activist judges' legislating from the bench. So if you believe that, then it should logically follow that you think the states shouldn't be bound by the BoR and should be free to legislate in derogation of rights like free speech, freedom of assembly and freedom of religion? Or is it just an inconsistant position where some kind of legislating from the bench is okey-dokey? Please explain. The first Amendment states "Congress shall make no law...". It doesn't mention laws made by the states. And the 14th Amendment speaks of "privileges and immunities", not "rights". Seems clear to me, but maybe you can explain how the extension of the rights enumerated in the first amendment to the states via the 14th Amendment was not judicial activisim. Or is it just your view that the states can and should be able to restrict the rights in the BoR?

The Constitution's meaning is clear in the vast majority of its content. It only became unclear to those who began to see it as a set of limits on an otherwise unlimited Federal Government, rather than what it is, i.e., a set of delegated powers, to be narrowly defined in accord with the Tenth Amendment to said document.

If the meaning of the Constitution is so clear, then please explain why the founding fathers chose to create a government with a judicial branch and a Supreme Court to decide questions and cases arising under the Constitution. Why did they even bother with Article III; I mean, if its so clear, who needs a court to interpret the Constitution?

I submit that its not so clear and while you think you know what terms in the Constitution means, so do a lot of people who have very different views. As a perfect example, one only needs to look to the confirmation hearings of Judge Alito. Alito received a lot of scorn for his opinion in Rybar both by some members of the Senate, and by many people in the public who strongly thought that machineguns were obviously something that should be able to be controlled by congress via the commerce clause. You and I probably share the opinion that thier view is wrong, but they nonetheless feel as strongly about their position as we do about ours, so there are obviously valid disagreements about the terms of the constitution and their interpretation. I looked over my copy of the Constitution again last night, and I still haven't found the section where it names "The Real Hawkeye" or "MG shaggy" as the final arbiter of constitutional questions, so I'll have to stick with what it says in Art. III and continue to believe the SCOTUS has that power.

A long train of treasonous acts on the part of the Supreme Court does not justify the usurpations of the last century.

OK, so if its your belief that the government has really been usurped by a cabal of activist judges and self-serving legislators, I have to ask (especially in light of your quote from Hamilton) why are you sitting there at your computer instead of taking Hamilton's advice and taking up arms against the government? If you really believe that, why do you continue to pay taxes and financially support what you must believe to be a rogue government? Why do you obey the laws of a rogue government?
 
I'd dare ask how many of us could, within the hour, put our hands on a weapon capable of stopping so much as an up-armored truck?

Answer seems to be "Not many":


The answer is more truly "those who are amatuer chemists and know how to make a shaped charge."

I could, more than likely, have a LSC ready within two to three hours at most. Crude, yes. Effective, though, going by literature on them.
 
Ah yes, the old canard of 'activist judges' legislating from the bench. So if you believe that, then it should logically follow that you think the states shouldn't be bound by the BoR and should be free to legislate in derogation of rights like free speech, freedom of assembly and freedom of religion? Or is it just an inconsistant position where some kind of legislating from the bench is okey-dokey? Please explain. The first Amendment states "Congress shall make no law...". It doesn't mention laws made by the states. And the 14th Amendment speaks of "privileges and immunities", not "rights". Seems clear to me, but maybe you can explain how the extension of the rights enumerated in the first amendment to the states via the 14th Amendment was not judicial activisim. Or is it just your view that the states can and should be able to restrict the rights in the BoR?
I'll step up and say that I think the 14th "Amendment" is beyond judicial activism ... it is despotism. One of the very basic premises of free government is that the government cannot modify the Constitution against the will of the people, yet the 14th is just exactly that very thing.

And yes, I think the States should, and must, be able to restrict the rights in the BOR. In fact, I tend to believe that many of our modern problems are caused by an attempt to use the 14th "Amendment" to limit the States in the same way that the US is (intended to be) limited ... as a result the States are so bound that they cannot maintain a society and culture. There's a good book on this ... "The Bill of Rights: Original Meaning and Current Understanding", edited by Eugene W. Hickok, Jr.

"_Resolved_, That it is true as a general principle, and is also expressly declared by one of the amendments to the Constitution, that "the powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people;" and that no power over the freedom of religion, freedom of speech, or freedom of the press being delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, all lawful powers respecting the same did of right remain, and were reserved to the States or the people: that thus was manifested their determination to retain to themselves the right of judging how far the licentiousness of speech and of the press may be abridged without lessening their useful freedom, and how far those abuses which cannot be separated from their use should be tolerated, rather than the use be destroyed." -Thomas Jefferson (Draft of the Kentucky Resolutions: October, 1798)
 
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