Prohibited Persons Beliefs

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if you get caught "driving drunk a few times" and get eventually slammed with a felony DUI...

you:

a) couldn't care less about the law and about willingly endangering the life's of others by driving repeatedly (!) drunk

or

b) you are just plain stupid and don't realize what you are up to

... in neither case i feel sorry for you not being able to have a gun....

you made multiple horrible personal decisions which impact others.
 
^^^

there's a reason why we punish speeding and driving drunk...

saying: going 40mph over the posted speed limit with 5 beers ... is ok as long as nobody gets hurt - would lead to a LOT more fatalities.

discharging a firearm into the air from your balcony within a city is also illegal - and not only when someone gets hurt...
 
I don't mean to sound like I'm repeating myself. But, you didn't answer my question.

Can you please explain the impact to others that has occurred in your example.
 
And, I'm not just being pedantic. If you'll indulge me, I have a point to make. How I make that point depends on your answer to my question.
 
So, you think everyone should be allowed to drive drunk?
ngnrd said:
I believe that the government has no business punishing citizens that have not caused harm to others. But, I also believe that the penalties we currently have in place are not sufficient punishment for those that do cause harm.
Back on page three, I responded to this with half-hearted sarcasm, which you ignored (whether intentionally or unintentionally). If you don't mind, give me your thoughts (slightly modified, to be free of sarcasm):

So you propose that DUI is no longer a crime; but if that DUI results in vehicular homicide, the perpetrator ought to be charged with second-degree murder (effectively, unplanned murder - 25 years to life in prison).

This is an example of something that doesn't necessarily harm anyone no longer being a crime. However, if it does end up harming someone, the penalty would be only a bit more serious (as a DUI resulting in a death right now would generally result in around 10 years' imprisonment, depending on specifics to the case). Is this italicized statement a correct interpretation of your perspective?

ngnrd said:
I believe in freedom, with stiff penalties in place for those that choose to abuse that freedom.
So you believe that choosing to drive while intoxicated becomes an abuse of freedom only if something bad happens as a result of the choice you made. If that's true, then you need to explain what happened to make that choice an abuse of freedom. The problem is that can't be done, because it requires you to work backward with one-way logic. An action cannot be changed by it's reaction - it's one way only; Action causes reaction, and the reaction has no effect on the action that caused it.

Similarly, the result of the choice has no impact on the choice itself, it's simply a reaction to an action. Therefore, the result of the choice can't have any effect on whether or not we call it an abuse of freedom; we can only measure the initial action itself, without regard to the consequence.

Example:

Suppose I throw a hammer into the air ten times. If it hits my coworker in the head just once, my independent choice to throw it that specific time can't automagically become an abuse of my freedom. Rather, if there's even a chance that it could hit him at all, then choosing to throw it even one time is already an abuse of my freedom.

The point of all this, of course, is to go back and address texasgun's statement in post #127: "if you get caught driving drunk a few times ... you made multiple horrible personal decisions which impact others."

You agree that this is a horrible decision, yet ask for an explanation as to how that decision effects others. The answer is that it doesn't, but that fact is irrelevant in determining the proper response. Simply making the choice to drive drunk is already an abuse of one's freedom because we know the potential negative outcome, and therefore the individual ought to be reprimanded.

What is more fair (or just, if you prefer)? Giving Jon Smith the death penalty because he killed another person on accident; or giving Jon Smith a punishment because he could have killed someone on accident? Which do you think Jon would prefer? Which do you think his victim would prefer?

It's the same reason we spank our children for playing in the street. Would it be better to wait for them to get hit by a car, and then say they deserved it?
A person who makes a decision that could harm or kill an innocent and unsuspecting third party needs to have his behavior corrected. It's foolish to wait until the behavior has caused irreparable damage.
 
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Bobson: Excellent post, with excellent questions. But, I am headed to bed, and don't have time to write an appropriate point-by-point response at the moment. I don't want to cobble together an incomplete answer and short-change the discussion, so I'll post a proper response in the morning.

Until then, let me provide a scenario for you to think about.

Given the general premise that people typically have the freedom to participate in various recreational activities in public parks, I doubt that anybody would feel compelled to have a man arrested if they saw him practicing karate moves on a rainy day when there weren't many other park patrons around. But, if that same man was out practicing on a sunny holiday weekend, when the park was much more crowded, nearby park patrons may be justified in feeling a bit disturbed, and would probably avoid his general area. If enough people were bothered, the man may even be questioned about his actions, asked to stop what he's doing, or even asked to leave the premises. But, assuming he stopped, or left when asked, the mere fact that he was violently punching and kicking at an imaginary opponent still wouldn't seem to warrant his arrest. However, if that same man chose to practice his karate moves on a day during which there was a concert scheduled, and he inadvertently, but violently, punched a distracted passer-by in the nose, an arrest would not be questioned. In fact, it would probably be demanded.

So, a man chooses to perform the same actions under mildly different circumstances, and yet the resulting response is very different in both the eyes of the observing public, and in the eyes of the law. But, what has actually changed that made practicing karate in the park perfectly acceptable in one case, and a possible criminal offense in another? Further, supposing the man admits that he was simply performing his regular daily karate practice when he "accidentally" punched the distracted bystander, do you think it would be appropriate to enact a law banning the practice of martial arts in the park? Or would it be more fitting to punish that particular man for negligence, reckless endangerment, or maybe even battery?
 
Bobson: Excellent post, with excellent questions. But, I am headed to bed, and don't have time to write an appropriate point-by-point response at the moment. I don't want to cobble together an incomplete answer and short-change the discussion, so I'll post a proper response in the morning.

Until then, let me provide a scenario for you to think about.

Given the general premise that people typically have the freedom to participate in various recreational activities in public parks, I doubt that anybody would feel compelled to have a man arrested if they saw him practicing karate moves on a rainy day when there weren't many other park patrons around. But, if that same man was out practicing on a sunny holiday weekend, when the park was much more crowded, nearby park patrons may be justified in feeling a bit disturbed, and would probably avoid his general area. If enough people were bothered, the man may even be questioned about his actions, asked to stop what he's doing, or even asked to leave the premises. But, assuming he stopped, or left when asked, the mere fact that he was violently punching and kicking at an imaginary opponent still wouldn't seem to warrant his arrest. However, if that same man chose to practice his karate moves on a day during which there was a concert scheduled, and he inadvertently, but violently, punched a distracted passer-by in the nose, an arrest would not be questioned. In fact, it would probably be demanded.

So, a man chooses to perform the same actions under mildly different circumstances, and yet the resulting response is very different in both the eyes of the observing public, and in the eyes of the law. But, what has actually changed that made practicing karate in the park perfectly acceptable in one case, and a possible criminal offense in another? Further, supposing the man admits that he was simply performing his regular daily karate practice when he "accidentally" punched the distracted bystander, do you think it would be appropriate to enact a law banning the practice of martial arts in the park? Or would it be more fitting to punish that particular man for negligence, reckless endangerment, or maybe even battery?

There should be nothing wrong with his actions in either circumstance and he should be left alone to practice his karate on both days.

Just like the person going 40mph over the speed limit shortly after consuming 5 beers is committing a crime, putting other people at risk, and should be punished for his actions whether or not he actually kills somebody that time.
 
Personally, I can see that it might have been appropriate for my relative to lose his drivers license forever and be permanently banned from buying booze (even though I don't know how that would be enforced).

However, the legal system has shown us that driving and boozing must be "rights", while gun ownership is a mere privilege.

That is a very good observation.

People forget that the Second Amendment guarantees a RIGHT, not a privilege.
Thus, I asked, why that right should be considered less important than any others.

I agree with those who say any one allowed to freely mingle in society should be allowed to "keep and bear Arms".

Look, we all know about "prosecutorial discretion". Does that mean it is always fairly given? I don't think any one here is stupid enough to say yes.

The same with the Jury system. The Jury has the authority to declare the defendant not guilty, if they feel his crime was justified or so trivial, it shouldn't have been brought to trial. This is called Jury nullification. But if the Judge or the Prosecutor, have the slightest hint, that some one on the Jury believes that, he will be off that Jury. So much for that important safeguard. The Martha Stewart case is a good example of that.

And don't forget, we are not just talking about felonies, thanks to the Lautenberg Act which turns what may be very minor misdemeanors into the equivalent of Federal Felonies. And the fact that the act was applied Ex Post Facto, that retroactively, despite the prohibition in the Constitution against such.

Some people don't realize the extent of the law, it applies to all roommates, not just "intimate partners", such as college roommates, family members, such as brothers, and so on. By the way, the reauthorized "violence against women act", now includes name calling, so don't go calling your girlfriend a slut.

A point I was trying to make earlier, involved the reason for the background checks, is that they aren't to keep gun out of the hands of bad guys, but to keep them out of as many peoples hands as possible.

And as a practical matter, has the background checks ever kept a gun out of the hands of a bad guy who really wanted one?
 
we are not amused said:
...we all know about "prosecutorial discretion". Does that mean it is always fairly given? I don't think any one here is stupid enough to say yes....
One thing about prosecutorial discretion is that it is discretionary -- i. e., left to someone's own judgment. That's what discretion means. And when it comes to things which are discretionary, fairness is again in the eye of the beholder.

Welcome to real life.

we are not amused said:
...thanks to the Lautenberg Act which turns what may be very minor misdemeanors into the equivalent of Federal Felonies. And the fact that the act was applied Ex Post Facto,..
You're entitled to your rant, but you should not be misstating the law.

The Lautenberg Amendment is not an ex post facto law. As defined, an ex post facto law is one:
...adopted after an act is committed making it illegal although it was legal when done, or increases the penalty for a crime after it is committed...
Ex post facto essentially means being subject to criminal sanctions today for an act performed in the past which was legal when performed. That is different from from being subject to criminal liability for the continued possession of a thing after the effective date of a law making that thing illegal for you to possess.

In terms of the Lautenberg amendment, it may be understood as follows:

  1. On may have possessed a gun after having been convicted of a domestic violence misdemeanor and prior to the effective date of the Lautenberg amendment.

  2. If that person had sold the gun prior to the effective date of the Lautenberg amendment, he would have no criminal liability under the Lautenberg amendment for the act committed and concluded before that amendment became effective.

  3. If however the Lautenberg amendment purported to make criminal that prior possession of a gun no longer possessed, it would be ex post facto and violate the Constitutional prohibition.

  4. But instead the act made illegal under the Lautenberg amendment is the possession of a gun after the effective date of the amendment by someone convicted of a domestic violence misdemeanor. The illegal conduct, possession of the gun, must occur after the effective date of the law.

  5. What is unlawful under Lautenberg is the continued possession after Lautenberg became effective, not the possession of a gun prior to the amendment's effective date.

we are not amused said:
...And as a practical matter, has the background checks ever kept a gun out of the hands of a bad guy who really wanted one?
We know that background checks have prevented prohibited persons from buying guns from FFLs because we have records of purchases declined. Maybe some folks who were declined were able to get a gun in another way, and maybe some folks were not.

But the fact that something isn't perfect doesn't mean it's not useful.

The political reality is that there is strong support of convicted felons and certain others not having ready access to guns. In our system those of you who find this objectionable may try to change public sentiment sufficiently to get the law changed. And you are also free to challenge the law in court.
 
But the fact that something isn't perfect doesn't mean it's not useful.

Ahh, but useful for whom?

A point I was trying to make earlier, involved the reason for the background checks, is that they aren't to keep gun out of the hands of bad guys, but to keep them out of as many peoples hands as possible
 
Incorrect yet common belief.

I can PM you an essay if you want, or you can take my word for it. The death penalty - not the physical act of executing a man, but the time in prison, the money spent on appeals, the average length of time of those appeals, the fact that death row inmates get their own cell, the fact that maximum security housing units mandate additional correctional officers - ... capital punishment costs far more money than life imprisonment.

Like I said, I'll gladly send out copies of my essay, and you can read it and verify my cited sources, or you can take my word for it. Or, of course, you can ignore me and go on in ignorance for the rest of your life. Three options that I offer to you with the full respect of this ex correctional officer.

BTW, my two cents: Any felony, 2A rights are stripped for life. Its a shame that our criminal justice system is ineffective, but that's a fact of life. If our system could achieve even 70% rehabilitation across the board, I would be all for reinstating rights upon release, but its not happening.



OK then. I choose to ignore you simply based on your self-righteous attitude.
:D
 
Prohibiting them from owning firearms doesn't actually do anything; if their intentions are pure, then they will not commit crime anymore. If their intentions are not pure, they will acquire a gun anyway and do what they want.

This.

There are some 150 million guns in private hands...and those are just the ones that they know of since doing their best to keep track since 1968. There are probably three times that many that they don't know about. If a man...trustworthy or not...decides that he wants a gun, he can go out and get one. All it takes is money and desire. With a little patience and the required bucks, he can probably get exactly the gun that he wants. If he's not picky, he can leave his home after breakfast and come back with a gun before the sun goes down.
 
This.

There are some 150 million guns in private hands...and those are just the ones that they know of since doing their best to keep track since 1968. There are probably three times that many that they don't know about. If a man...trustworthy or not...decides that he wants a gun, he can go out and get one. All it takes is money and desire. With a little patience and the required bucks, he can probably get exactly the gun that he wants. If he's not picky, he can leave his home after breakfast and come back with a gun before the sun goes down.
Total side track here, but I just noticed your signature lines.
That's really cool.
All 3 of my dogs are rescued animals.
 
Suppose I throw a hammer into the air ten times. If it hits my coworker in the head just once, my independent choice to throw it that specific time can't automagically* become an abuse of my freedom. Rather, if there's even a chance that it could hit him at all, then choosing to throw it even one time is already an abuse of my freedom.

I understand the logic; I don't understand why throwing it once should result in punishment, and throwing it once and hitting him should yield a separate judgment, as it would in our current system. Logically, it makes sense to punish only based on the actions of the defendant; but do we really want reckless endangerment equated with manslaughter? Assault-with-a-deadly-weapon with murder? The burden/threshold of each raised to the point they would have to likely result in death? Such a system doesn't "feel" right to me, but punishing actions instead of results does make more sense. Cognitive dissonance, I guess :eek:

If their intentions are not pure, they will acquire a gun anyway and do what they want.
Mostly, they'll just do what they want ;)

TCB

*love it :D
 
People forget that the Second Amendment guarantees a RIGHT, not a privilege.


Bingo.

Up until the McDonald & Heller SCOTUS decisions, the prevailing attitude among gun-grabbers (and academia like law professors) was that the Second Amendment did not convey an individual right.
For the better part of a century, politicians enacted laws (eg, GCA'68) based upon the premise that private gun ownership is merely a privilege.

The vast majority of people alive today, have grown up in the environment created by these flawed laws. It seems perfectly normal to these people.
 
Is the right to self defense a universal God given right, or is it a select Man given right?
Even if you've committed the worst act in the world, and are later attacked by another human being, YOU WILL fight back.
Unless God strips you of that ability.

If it is a man given right, then I think it falls more under a Man given privilege.

It seems we compare cars, driving and guns here a lot.
Driving is a privilege (not a right) and can be removed or revoked.

Self defense???
Which is it?
 
First, I would like to say that this is not an attempt to change anybody’s mind on whom, or for what reasons a person should be prohibited from owning a firearm. I am merely presenting my opinion. If after understanding my premise, and my conclusions, you still disagree, that is your decision; it’s your right. If you understand, and by your understanding choose to expand the boundaries in which you view the discussion, then I have not wasted my time.

Second, I want to reassure you that I am in no way an anarchist. I believe that good and just laws are the basis of civilized society. Further, I believe that it is the responsibility of our representative government to enact and enforce laws that are not only good and just, but also necessary. However, I am fully convinced that our government – at all levels – has over-reached that mandate. Also, although I know it’s not possible, in a perfect world, one law should suffice; “Do no harm.”

So you propose that DUI is no longer a crime; but if that DUI results in vehicular homicide, the perpetrator ought to be charged with second-degree murder (effectively, unplanned murder - 25 years to life in prison).
This is an example of something that doesn't necessarily harm anyone no longer being a crime. However, if it does end up harming someone, the penalty would be only a bit more serious (as a DUI resulting in a death right now would generally result in around 10 years' imprisonment, depending on specifics to the case). Is this italicized statement a correct interpretation of your perspective?

In general, yes, that is a fair assessment of my position. The simple act of driving while impaired, no matter the cause of the impairment, should not be grounds for legal punishment. (For the sake of the bigger discussion, I will forgo debate about what specific penalties I think would be appropriate if/when harm is done.) My basis for this is twofold.

First: In general, I believe that every individual has the right – the freedom - to choose their own actions, as long as those actions are not harmful to others. Notice that I did not say as long as those actions ‘pose no danger’ to others. This is a very important distinction. The mere act of driving a car poses some danger to other individuals, as does the act of maintaining possession of a loaded firearm. Yet, if a person is responsible, and maintains control, these actions are found to be acceptable (as it should be). However, if, while a person is in control of either their car, or their firearm, harm befalls another individual due to their actions, or lack thereof, such actions are (and very well should be) punishable acts, with the term of the punishment based on two criteria: intent to cause harm, and severity of harm caused.

Second: Specifically, I see no substantial difference between various causes of impairment while driving. Use of a cell phone has been shown to impair driving as much as having a Blood Alcohol Content of .08. (Consider this. Right now, it is highly likely that there are substantially more people driving while talking on a cell phone than there are people driving under the influence of drugs or alcohol.) And, the level of impairment related to texting is even higher. Reading a map, eating, dealing with unruly children, changing radio stations, casually conversing with passengers, arguing with a spouse, and a myriad other choices made by drivers each cause varying degrees of impairment. And each of these choices is the root cause of many accidents on our roadways every day. Yet, the penalties for impaired driving typically only include the punishment for the use of drugs or alcohol. Looking at the evidence, I have yet to be able to conclude that one particular type of impairment is somehow worse than other types that provide the same tragic results. Yet, this is the leap that one must make in order to support current DUI laws based on an arbitrary BAC level.

So you believe that choosing to drive while intoxicated becomes an abuse of freedom only if something bad happens as a result of the choice you made. If that's true, then you need to explain what happened to make that choice an abuse of freedom. The problem is that can't be done, because it requires you to work backward with one-way logic. An action cannot be changed by it's reaction - it's one way only; Action causes reaction, and the reaction has no effect on the action that caused it.

I believe that you misunderstand my position here. I do not believe that a choice to (fill in the blank) can somehow become an abuse of freedom. The choice IS the freedom. The negative effects of making that choice should be considered evidence that a person has made a poor choice; evidence that a person has abused his freedom; evidence that a person must be punished.

Similarly, the result of the choice has no impact on the choice itself, it's simply a reaction to an action. Therefore, the result of the choice can't have any effect on whether or not we call it an abuse of freedom; we can only measure the initial action itself, without regard to the consequence.

Example:

Suppose I throw a hammer into the air ten times. If it hits my coworker in the head just once, my independent choice to throw it that specific time can't automagically become an abuse of my freedom. Rather, if there's even a chance that it could hit him at all, then choosing to throw it even one time is already an abuse of my freedom.

Let me provide a counter example:

Say, in order to determine if what looks like an abandoned hornet nest hanging on a tree near my property line is actually an active nest, I pick up a stick and poke it. In this case, no hornets come out, and the nearby neighbor does not get stung. Therefore, there should be no punishment for my actions, because there was no harm, and no intent to cause harm. Note that the fact that although there was no harm, that does not mean that poking the hornet’s nest was without risk. Neither does it mean that I made a good choice when I decided to pick up a stick and poke a hornet’s nest, although maybe such an action was justified in this case.

But, if I know my neighbor is nearby, and my decision to poke the nest causes him to get stung, the situation changes. In this case, although there was still no intent to cause harm to the neighbor, he was in fact harmed. Maybe the punishment is slight, or even dismissed entirely because the harm is so minimal. But, what if the neighbor dies of anaphylactic shock? And what if I knew he was allergic to hornet stings? And what if I had just gotten in a fight with him because he was flirting with my wife? Each of these changes in the scenario makes a difference in the appropriate punishment, even as the original action of poking a hornet’s nest remains the same.

The point of all this, of course, is to go back and address texasgun's statement in post #127: "if you get caught driving drunk a few times ... you made multiple horrible personal decisions which impact others."

I agreed with texasgun on this point. I am not of the opinion that any decision that does not cause harm is a good decision. Sometimes, when the risk of harm is great, and the reward for the making a particular decision is small, making that decision is a bad choice, even if it works out OK. But, I cannot accept the argument that just making a high risk decision is worth punishment. Everybody must choose for themselves whether the reward is worth the risk. And, everybody must accept the consequences if the results of that decision aren’t what was expected. That is what freedom is.

You agree that this is a horrible decision, yet ask for an explanation as to how that decision effects others. The answer is that it doesn't, but that fact is irrelevant in determining the proper response. Simply making the choice to drive drunk is already an abuse of one's freedom because we know the potential negative outcome, and therefore the individual ought to be reprimanded.

Here is the basic point where we differ philosophically. I don’t believe that the assertion that someone has caused no harm, but should be punished because they have the potential to cause harm, is irrelevant at all. I think that this point is exceedingly relevant. In fact, I believe that this particular point is the basis of our freedom; the cornerstone of our civilization.

Moreover, related specifically to this thread, I believe that this point is clearly the foundation upon which we defend our right to keep and bear arms. We gun owners do not dispute that firearms are dangerous when misused or abused. We do not claim that carrying firearms in public poses no risk. Rather, we assert that we have a right to possess and carry firearms in our homes, cars, and public places, even when the potential for unintended harm is well documented – even when the results of their misuse can be, and often are staggering.

In fact, gun owners typically agree that firearms are carried for the sole purpose of causing harm if and/or when we decide such harm is warranted. And, we even go so far as to insist that our government cannot punish us for making a decision to carry based solely on the clear risks that carrying a firearm poses. Rather, we assert time and again that they cannot make us criminals for simply possessing or carrying such a dangerous item. Instead, we accept the fact that risks exist, and we insist that individuals that cause harm with firearms be punished, unless they can justify their decision to cause harm to a jury of their peers.

What is more fair (or just, if you prefer)? Giving Jon Smith the death penalty because he killed another person on accident; or giving Jon Smith a punishment because he could have killed someone on accident? Which do you think Jon would prefer? Which do you think his victim would prefer?

These are not the only options. Nor are they mutually exclusive. So picking one over the other is impossible. But, I will say this. I believe it is better that ten guilty walk free than to deny liberty and freedom to one innocent.

It's the same reason we spank our children for playing in the street. Would it be better to wait for them to get hit by a car, and then say they deserved it? A person who makes a decision that could harm or kill an innocent and unsuspecting third party needs to have his behavior corrected. It's foolish to wait until the behavior has caused irreparable damage.

Children have a limited frame of reference regarding what is right and wrong, what is good or bad, and what is helpful or harmful. Teaching them these differences is the responsibility of the parent, and I would expect no less.

However, as adult citizens, the government is not our nanny. It is not the government’s responsibility to provide lessons in right and wrong whenever we look like we are about to make a bad decision. Rather, it is the government’s responsibility to enact and enforce laws that are good and just; laws that provide the ability for people to exercise freedom, while also providing for the punishment of those that bring harm to others. And, it is the individual's responsibility to exercise their freedom in a way that does not bring harm to others, and to accept the punishment if they don't.
 
This has been discussed countless times here with the same results, no one changed their opinion. We are a nation of laws, no one agrees with all of them.
But most rational people would agree that if you have committed a felony and the rate of rearrests for committing the same types of crimes over and over again, must disqualify them from possessing a gun.
There are people who just cannot be trusted not to re offend and possibly escalate as time goes on.
There is no magical way of knowing what each person will do, so the welfare of the many, must come before the rights of a few. The suggestion that violent felons should be granted weapons is preposterous.
If you want to live in that type of society, then it can easily be made to be a reality.
We will never have the resources to review millions of cases on an individual basis, "although that would be the ideal way to do it", it's just not practical or affordable for that to happen in our society.
Thus "don't do the crime , if you can't do the time"
I do not have anything against a non violent person having their rights restored after a given amount of time, but not a predator or someone who has been shown to be unstable and violent by nature of prior arrests.
Very few hardcore convicts ever turn their lives around, Having endured a few violent confrontations with people who had 30+ arrests, and were left to run amuck because they testified against a bigger criminal than themselves, I can from my own personnel experiences understand that theory and practice are two different things.
had someone you loved or cared about been killed, or kidnapped, by a scumbag who got his gun back, because of some "deal" he made, perhaps you might be a bit more realistic.
This discussion actually sounds like it was evoked to cause a stir, not for any serious or purposeful reason.
 
There is no magical way of knowing what each person will do, so the welfare of the many, must come before the rights of a few.

Which is precisely why assault weapons need to be banned. Period. The welfare of the many, and of the CHILDREN, must come before the rights of a few.
 
This discussion actually sounds like it was evoked to cause a stir, not for any serious or purposeful reason.

This discussion was introduced in this thread by me. The purpose of it is to set in motion rational thought with a spirited debate. As free men when we let the gov decide who gets to have what is a bad idea. When people become complacent and indoctrinated to philosophy that is not only incorrect , but unfair we have failed as free men. Some people just go with whatever the gov flow is and never question it. That's not me though. I know whats best for me more so than some politicians. What you guys are agreeing to is some legislation introduced by a Democrat CT politician 45 yrs ago.A politician from the same state that Pushed their own AWB through after Sandy Hook. Signed into law by LBJ a rabid anti gunner that bullied congress into passing it. Is this making any sense now? Is anybody changing their opinion now? If not then I suppose the Democrats do whats best for gun laws?
 
That's taken out of context, when I say there is no knowing what a person with multiple felonies will do, it's a lot different than meaning the "average joe", who hasn't committed a rape or murder or attempted a crime punishable by a long jail sentence.
Let's not get the two mixed up. I own such a rifle, and so do many people who I know, but I wouldn't want a predicate felon owning a derringer.
So it is stirring the pot, usually it's some anti who comes in and tries to get a rise, or an ex con who has their own agenda.
It's more than likely not the average person who would welcome a kidnapper rapist, or other predator with open arms, help them move in next door and hand them a gun to boot.
I don't like violent criminals, my encounters with them did not go well, but hey that's just me.
 
Right, we are not so much discussing violent criminals as we are the non violent ones that get painted with the broad brush gym. I would rather see the violent get the same benefit as I would see the non violents be restricted.

Also a lot of these people would probably be more grateful to have another chance at having their rights restored ad be positive members of the gun community. I think most of the repeat offenders do so b/c they are so limited as to how they can make a living or somewhat oppressed from a loss of rights in society. Then you have the extremely violent offenders tht are messed up upstairs and will do heinous things again and again.
 
I feel that laws don't stop anyone. Guess what, more laws won't stop them either! In the old days in NY they made zip guns, and the ability to manufacture a firearm from plastic with a 3D printer is happening as I type this. The problem is the punishment for breaking laws like murder, rape, and pedophilia are not strict enough.

As many on THR know I've had two brothers murdered, one was forced off of the road while riding his Harley. The other was shot on the street with a wallet, keys, and a cell phone for protection. A man in a car killed one brother, he didn't need a gun. A man shot my other brother in the chest and stomach with a 12 gauge load of buckshot. The man who shot my brother was caught, the man who ran my brother off of the road is still at large.

The loss of my two brothers hurts the same. Every day is a struggle for me, I still cry sometimes. No one can say "you don't know what it's like to loose someone to gun violence" to me. No one in my family blamed guns for my brothers death, just like no one in my family blamed cars for the death of my other brother. That is the way people need to look at this. How stupid would I look standing in front of Chevy or Ford headquarters with a sign that says CARS KILL, or BAN ALL ASSAULT VEHICLES? Anyone who blames the object for the crime is a moron. Yes, you over in the corner, you're a moron!

The man who shot my brother got 26 years. My brother was 24, home on leave from Iraq, unarmed. He didn't get the death penalty because he didn't stick around to rob or rape my brother, that would have made it a death penalty. He was a former convict with a history of violent offenses and he still got a gun, illegally. So does anyone think he should get a chance to be put back into society again after his 26 years are up?

I have an unfortunate knowledge of the pain of loosing someone. I'm not guessing at how I would feel if it happened to me, it did happen to me. These ex-felons that are going to court and spending the money to have their rights reinstated aren't violent offenders from what I've read. These are the ones that stole a t.v., a dvd, or any other stupid thing. Any violent offenses takes away their eligibility. So that leaves us with ex-felons that have non-violent offenses or drug charges. I can't comment on drugs, I don't know anything about them really.

If they made a law that made it 10 years and then you could file for your rights to be re-instated I would be okay with that. My feeling is anything that is murder, rape, or molestation related the perpetrator should be put down. Animals do those things, not decent human beings. We put dogs down for biting, an evil low down animal that does things far worse than a dog bite gets 3 meals and a nice place to sleep. That makes no sense at all.
 
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death penalty for rape?

the constitution prohibits cruel and unusual punishment.

MS tried to get the death penalty for rape cases and it didn't go anywhere for obvious constitutional issues...

IMHO - the death penalty should be reserved for homicide cases. And that's about it.
 
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