hugh damright said:
And I am only insisting that "shall not be infringed" means "shall not be infringed BY CONGRESS." It might not be so clear at first glance, it might take a person a lot of work to conceive it, but I think it is the proper construction and consistent with constitutional law.
Yours is, I think, a not completely unreasonable stance
at first glance, but is, I believe, provably incorrect. Here's why: Unlike the First Amendment, the Second Amendment does not, in its language, only restrain Congress. You might argue in response that this doesn't matter, since the entire point of the Bill of Rights was to restrain the newly established Federal Government, but this is not entirely true. States are also restrained to some degree by the language of the Constitution, e.g., States are denied by this document the authority to declare war, engage in foreign diplomacy, coin money, etc. Implicitly, States are also restrained from disarming the
Militia of the United States, which militia is made up of a portion of the members of the various State militias.
How is that, you ask? Well, it's right there in Article I, Section 8 of the US Constitution, where the powers of Congress are listed. One such is the power to call forth the Militia to execute the laws of the Union, etc. Now, the militia cannot be called forth if is does not exist, and since the definition of a member of the militia is a civilian prepared, with his own arms, to muster in times of emergency, the States are precluded by the Supremacy clause from preventing civilians from possessing and drilling with arms suitable for service in a militia, as this would frustrate the exercise of a power granted to the Federal Government. The Federal Government, in times of emergency, cannot call forth the militia if said militia does not first exist.
Furthermore, the Second Amendment presumes the existence of a well organized militia, referring to the very same militia mentioned in Article I, Section 8. Combine these facts with Article VI's Supremacy Clause, whereby all powers granted to the Federal Government, when used, supersede any contradictory claims to power by the States, and you have a pretty air tight case for the States being prohibited by the US Constitution from disarming the militia, for it is certainly in conflict with the Federal Governments power to call them forth if they are not permitted to exist under State law.
And what do you mean that the militia belongs to the people and not the State or government?
You are being disingenuous. I never said that. You are intentionally twisting my words. What I said, and you know this, was that
the right to keep and bear arms belongs to the people, not to any strata of government or the state.
I think we agree that militia is of/by/for the people, a way for the people to check the government, because that is the principle of free government, the political right. But I guess I don't see where the States fit into your view of militia. And please understand, when I say "State," I am not talking about the Governor or the State Legislature, I am talking about the people of a State as a collective, as a political body. It is my assertion that only a State level militia could ensure a free State.
Nice try. The State, no matter how you look at it, is not the same as the people, though it is controlled by the people in a representative republic, and ideally it represents their will.