I'm not going to do that. As I've said countless times, that is not anyone's responsibility but your own. If you want to know the laws, you can look them up. If you think things are the same in Texas as they are in Maryland...well, let's just hope you don't think that.
There is more than one conversation going on here.
Whoa, whoa, whoa! Put 'er in reverse and back the truck up here!
The OP started this out about a man who had just recently been tried and convicted and ended his opening post with "two things that seem to be evident from an ST&T standpoint".
From there we started discussing the aspects of some laws with respect to self defense and deadly force, including the fact that the states differ on some aspects.
At post #48, you enter the conversation to discuss the differences between this court case and another one.
Somewhere in the general vicinity of post #62 the discussion about the differences in state laws started coming up more heatedly.
And at no time during all of this have I, or anybody else, said that all jurisdictional laws are the same across the board or that understanding the basis behind the laws can be used to supersede local laws.
We ALL recognize that there ARE differences in the legal details from jurisdiction to jurisdiction. But regardless, they ALL have the same general basis.
If YOU wish to argue against that, then YOU need to provide us with some circumstances in which the jurisdictional laws differ from what we are saying are the basis upon which such laws are derived.
This is how such discussions progress into something meaningful.
Kleanbore brought up one such example, that in which Texas allows the use of deadly force with respect to property.
I'm not asking for such information from you in post #72 to be argumentative. I really want to know what you have to support your point of view on this matter. Then we can discuss the specifics with respect to your example instead of bickering back and forth around generalities that aren't getting us anywhere.