campergeek
Member
Like some others here, I particularly like Luke 11:21, on its face, as scriptural justification for arming oneself for defense. After all, it's hard to argue when Jesus says:
"When a strong man, fully armed, guards his own house, his possessions are safe." (NIV)
However, in context, this passage is part of Jesus' response when challenged about under what authority he casts out demons. The parable of which this is part compares Satan (the "strong man" in this verse) to Christ "someone stronger" in the next: "But when someone stronger attacks and overpowers him, he takes away the armor in which the man trusted and divides up the spoils."
So my questions is to the Biblical scholars in the group: Is the usage of this verse applied to our cause weakened by the fact that the "strong man, fully armed" with whom we relate in an RKBA sense is a reference to the devil when taken in context? That is to say - if this verse were to be used in a discussion with other Christians, could they come back to say that obviously Christ isn't arguing for the adversary, but rather against the "strong man" as being overtaken by someone stronger - in this case, Christ.
Or, do you stand on the position that, regardless of the target of the "strong man" in this case, the factual manner in which Jesus makes the statement establishes it as a truth which could be equally applicable to any good or evil "strong man"?
Just curious of some other thoughts & interpretations.
"When a strong man, fully armed, guards his own house, his possessions are safe." (NIV)
However, in context, this passage is part of Jesus' response when challenged about under what authority he casts out demons. The parable of which this is part compares Satan (the "strong man" in this verse) to Christ "someone stronger" in the next: "But when someone stronger attacks and overpowers him, he takes away the armor in which the man trusted and divides up the spoils."
So my questions is to the Biblical scholars in the group: Is the usage of this verse applied to our cause weakened by the fact that the "strong man, fully armed" with whom we relate in an RKBA sense is a reference to the devil when taken in context? That is to say - if this verse were to be used in a discussion with other Christians, could they come back to say that obviously Christ isn't arguing for the adversary, but rather against the "strong man" as being overtaken by someone stronger - in this case, Christ.
Or, do you stand on the position that, regardless of the target of the "strong man" in this case, the factual manner in which Jesus makes the statement establishes it as a truth which could be equally applicable to any good or evil "strong man"?
Just curious of some other thoughts & interpretations.