There Is Only One Way The Second Amendment Can Be In Complete Accord...
...with the rest of the Constitution, and that is if it forbids the several states to infringe the RKBA as well as it forbids the Congress to infringe the RKBA.
I hear a lot of people touting that the 'Bill of Rights" only applied(applies) to the Union. No one has ever provided proof of that, other than for the obvious First Amendment prior to the Fourteenth Amendment.
The Second Amendment and the Tenth Amendment protect our right to keep and bear arms. First, per the Tenth, there is no power delegated to the federal government in the Constitution that would allow it to control the people's keeping and/or bearing of arms. Next, the Second Amendment - a prohibition on legislation that would infringe the people's right to keep and bear arms - would come under the heading of a power prohibited to the states as well as the federal government. Thirdly, Article I, Section 8, Clause (16), gives the Congress power to actually provide the militia - that's We the People who are not in the regular military services - with arms.
With that in mind, refer to Article I, Section 10, Clause 3 of the Constitution where it says, "No state shall, without the consent of Congress,.....,keep troops,..., in time of peace.
Now, to whom shall the federal government provide those arms if the states are forbidden to keep troops? Why, to the people, of course! The only force a state may hold is something authorized by Congress. However, the militia is to remain forever ready to be called forth by Congress as authorized by Article I, Section 8, Clause 15. And what comprises the militia? The people. This is still true even in the light of the National Defense Act of 1916 which provided for organizing a part of the militia to be held ready for employment in the service of the United States. That Act did neither eliminate the need for a well regulated militia nor has the Constitution been amended to cancel or to ignore or deny in any way that the militia exists. Now, that truth calls forth another undeniable truth.
THE MILITIA existed prior to the Constitution and any of the states. The militia is spoken of in the Constitution in that preexistent tense. The Constitution did not create the militia. None of the states created the militia. The Second Amendment did not create the militia. The Constitution only talks of arming, organizing, disciplining, and calling forth the militia. The Second Amendment protects the Right of the People to Keep and Bear Arms so that the militia might be well regulated (armed and trained) in their use to maintain freedom. And, again, who is the militia? The people.
One undeniable truth often spoken of is that states do not have rights. States have powers. Though many claim the Second Amendment applies only to the federal government, the premise is demonstrably false. The Second Amendment protects a right of the people. It does not grant a power to the states. It does not reserve a power to the states. Anything in the Constitution denying a power to a state is specifically written in that context. Anything in the Constitution denying a power to the federal government is specifically written in that context as well. Anything in the Constitution not specifically singled out to deny a power to a state or the federal government denies said power across the board. Only individuals have rights. The Second Amendment protects the right of the people and forbids any power of the state to infringe upon that right. No power ever trumps a right on any level.
Now, let us hearken back to Article I, Section 8, Clause (16), where Congress is given power to arm the militia. In the light of that, and the fact that the Constitution is the supreme law of the land, where would a state find power to supersede power granted to the United States government? Where would a state find the power to forbid, or even ever so slightly infringe upon, the duty of the militia(that's us) to keep and bear arms as imposed upon us(the militia) by power
SPECIFICALLY granted to Congress in the Constitution? It is nowhere. If Congress decided to arm each and every member of the militia with a .50BMG, a 1911, and an M16, any state law to the contrary would have to go bye-bye. In fact, any state law currently existing to the contrary is, on its face, unconstitutional right now. Then, of course, there is the Second Amendment forbidding any and all branches and level of government to infringe upon the Right to Keep and Bear Arms. Make no mistake. The restrictions in the Second Amendment applies to all levels of government. Even if it didn't, no state law could ever(should never) be written that interfered with power granted to the federal government.
Disarming the people(the militia) doesn't even make sense. If a national crisis were to develop on any given day, requiring an immediate defense, we'd be hurting rather badly in several strategic states. Helpless civilians(disarmed militia) running from an invasion, rather than armed and standing ground, would impede the National Guard and the Military. Streets clogged with vehicles driven by helpless civilians(disarmed militia) will make it rather difficult for our Military and the Guard to come to the rescue.
As a footnote, I'd like to point out that the "Bill of Rights" is not a separate entity having any force or effect upon the laws, rights, privileges, or powers of anyone, or to any level of government. The separate Articles in the "Bill of Rights" are, as specified in the original "Bill of Rights",
" Articles in addition to, and Amendment of the Constitution ...: and as such are as much an integral part of the Constitution as any of the original Articles. Therefore, these added Articles(amendments to the Constitution) have as much weight and bearing on any and all levels of government created by or subservient to this Constitution. That would include any and all levels of state government. All the scholarly interpretation or construing(misconstruing?) of these facts is just that - scholarly interpretation or construing(misconstruing).
Here is actual law in the US Code where Congress recognizes that any right -
ANY right - secured by the Constitution is supreme, and these laws provide for punishment for anyone who violates these laws:
18 USC 241, Conspiracy against rights:
"If two or more persons conspire to injure, oppress, threaten, or intimidate any person in any State, Territory, Commonwealth, Possession, or District in the free exercise or enjoyment of any right or privilege secured to him by the Constitution or laws of the United States, or because of his having so exercised the same; or If two or more persons go in disguise on the highway, or on the premises of another, with intent to prevent or hinder his free exercise or enjoyment of any right or privilege so secured - They shall be fined under this title or imprisoned not more than ten years, or both; and if death results from the acts committed in violation of this section or if such acts include kidnapping or an attempt to kidnap, aggravated sexual abuse or an attempt to commit aggravated sexual abuse, or an attempt to kill, they shall be fined under this title or imprisoned for any term of years or for life, or both, or may be sentenced to death."
18 USC 242, Deprivation of rights under color of law:
Whoever, under color of any law, statute, ordinance, regulation, or custom, willfully subjects any person in any State, Territory, Commonwealth, Possession, or District to the deprivation of any rights, privileges, or immunities secured or protected by the Constitution or laws of the United States, or to different punishments, pains, or penalties, on account of such person being an alien, or by reason of his color, or race, than are prescribed for the punishment of citizens, shall be fined under this title or imprisoned not more than one year, or both; and if bodily injury results from the acts committed in violation of this section or if such acts include the use, attempted use, or threatened use of a dangerous weapon, explosives, or fire, shall be fined under this title or imprisoned not more than ten years, or both; and if death results from the acts committed in violation of this section or if such acts include kidnapping or an attempt to kidnap, aggravated sexual abuse, or an attempt to commit aggravated sexual abuse, or an attempt to kill, shall be fined under this title, or imprisoned for any term of years or for life, or both, or may be sentenced to death.
18 USC 242 is of particular note, in that it covers the deprivation of any right, etc, under the color of any law....
ANY law. It doesn't say any law of the United States, nor does it exempt the law of any state or political subdivision thereof. It simply says "...
any law,...".
Here is one where the Court got it very wrong: In U. S. v. Cruikshank, the SCOTUS said, "The Second Amendment declares that it shall not be infringed; but this,
as has been seen, means no more than that it shall not be infringed by Congress.(and does not bind the states)" (italics mine.) The SCOTUS has gotten this wrong. Nowhere in the Second Amendment does it say that the said Second Amendment applies to the federal government alone. The statement I italicized refers to previous decisions and the SCOTUS in this instance accepted that statement carte blanc.
The logic is simple here. How can anyone say that the only source of tyranny would come on the federal level? It is patently and provably FALSE! The tyranny the slaves lived under...Pardon me...Existed under was at the STATE level! Don't anyone give me the argument that the slaves were not considered to be people, either. Sodamn Hinsane didn't consider the Kurds as people. Sodamn Hinsane was a tyrant. Ipso facto! In my opinion, the
Cruikshank decision purposely avoided the application of the Second Amendment to the states because, in 1875, the SCOTUS didn't have the guts to force the states to adhere to the Constitution.
Further, the SCOTUS contradicted itself in Cruikshank in that it stated that the rights enumerated in the Constitution are preexisting to the Constitution but ignored the fact that those same rights are preexisting to the states as well! The illogic of this boggles my mind. How could the founding fathers have recognized the Right to Keep and Bear Arms, placed protection of it in the Constitution, and done so only as an academic exercise? Every citizen of this country is a citizen of a state. It is pure fallacy to claim a preexisting right, protected by the Constitution for the security of the people, cannot be protected from infringement by the states by that same Constitution that all states agreed to adhere to!
There is much more along these same lines, but space and time won't allow all of it to be printed here.
Woody
"I pledge allegiance to the rights that made and keep me free. I will preserve and defend those rights for all who live in this nation, founded on the belief and principles that those rights are inalienable and essential to the pursuit and preservation of life, liberty, and happiness." B.E.Wood
gc70 said:
The US Constitution defines: the structure of the national government; the powers given to the national government by the states; and, the powers denied to the national government. Some people thought 'natural' rights (i.e. freedom of speech) were so obvious and generally recognized that they did not have to be specifically mentioned in the US Constitution. Others insisted on the adoption of the Bill of Rights to spell out limits on the national government's ability to interfere with 'natural' rights.
Was it a faux pas or did you purposefully omit the fact that there are powers forbidden to the states in the Constitution?